MCPS Sample Questions: Free MCQs with Answers (2027)

A 28-year-old woman has a normal vaginal delivery. Fifteen minutes after delivery of the placenta she bleeds heavily, and the uterus feels soft and boggy above the umbilicus. Her blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. After uterine massage, which drug should be given first?

A) Oxytocin
B) Ergometrine
C) Carboprost
D) Misoprostol
E) Tranexamic acid

Correct answer: A) Oxytocin

Uterine atony is the commonest cause of postpartum haemorrhage, and oxytocin is the first-line uterotonic. Ergometrine is avoided here because it raises blood pressure and is contraindicated in hypertension and pre-eclampsia. Carboprost and misoprostol are second-line uterotonics, and tranexamic acid is added to, not used instead of, uterotonics.

A 3-year-old boy has had a fever for six days, with bilateral non-purulent conjunctivitis, cracked red lips, a polymorphous rash, swelling of the hands and feet, and a unilateral cervical lymph node. Which investigation is most important to look for the main complication of this illness?

A) Lumbar puncture
B) Echocardiography
C) Abdominal ultrasound
D) Renal biopsy
E) Blood culture

Correct answer: B) Echocardiography

This is Kawasaki disease. Its most serious complication is coronary artery aneurysm, so echocardiography is done at diagnosis and during follow-up. Treatment with intravenous immunoglobulin and aspirin, given early, reduces the risk of aneurysms.

A 62-year-old woman presents with sudden severe pain in the right eye, headache, vomiting and blurred vision with haloes around lights. The eye is red, the cornea hazy and the pupil fixed and mid-dilated. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Anterior uveitis
B) Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C) Bacterial conjunctivitis
D) Episcleritis
E) Subconjunctival haemorrhage

Correct answer: B) Acute angle-closure glaucoma

A painful red eye with a hazy cornea, a fixed mid-dilated pupil, haloes and vomiting is typical of acute angle closure, which raises intraocular pressure sharply and needs urgent treatment to save vision. Anterior uveitis gives a small, irregular pupil; conjunctivitis, episcleritis and subconjunctival haemorrhage do not affect vision or the pupil.

A 12-year-old boy has recurrent nosebleeds after picking his nose. From which site does most anterior epistaxis arise?

A) Woodruff’s plexus
B) Little’s area on the anterior nasal septum
C) Inferior turbinate
D) Middle meatus
E) Sphenoethmoidal recess

Correct answer: B) Little’s area on the anterior nasal septum

Most nosebleeds, especially in children, come from Little’s area, where branches of the internal and external carotid arteries join to form Kiesselbach’s plexus on the anterior septum. Woodruff’s plexus, at the back of the nose, is a source of posterior bleeding in older adults.

A 45-year-old man has been stable on lithium for bipolar disorder for several years. Which newly started drug is most likely to raise his serum lithium level and cause toxicity?

A) Hydrochlorothiazide
B) Sodium valproate
C) Paracetamol
D) Theophylline
E) Acetazolamide

Correct answer: A) Hydrochlorothiazide

Thiazide diuretics reduce the renal clearance of lithium and can cause toxicity, as can ACE inhibitors, NSAIDs and dehydration. Theophylline and acetazolamide increase lithium excretion and lower its level, while valproate and paracetamol do not have an important effect.

During an axillary brachial plexus block with bupivacaine, a patient becomes agitated, has a seizure and then develops ventricular arrhythmias. Along with airway management and seizure control, which specific treatment should be given?

A) Intravenous 20% lipid emulsion
B) Intravenous naloxone
C) Intravenous dantrolene
D) Intravenous flumazenil
E) Intravenous neostigmine

Correct answer: A) Intravenous 20% lipid emulsion

This is local anaesthetic systemic toxicity. Intravenous 20% lipid emulsion is the specific treatment, given with airway support, seizure control and cardiopulmonary resuscitation if needed. Dantrolene treats malignant hyperthermia, naloxone reverses opioids, flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines and neostigmine reverses non-depolarising muscle relaxants.

A 50-year-old overweight man is newly diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. His kidney function is normal and he has no other illnesses. Along with diet and exercise advice, which drug is the usual first choice?

A) Metformin
B) Gliclazide
C) Insulin glargine
D) Pioglitazone
E) Acarbose

Correct answer: A) Metformin

Metformin is the usual first-line drug in type 2 diabetes when there are no contraindications. It does not cause weight gain or hypoglycaemia when used alone. Sulfonylureas such as gliclazide, pioglitazone and acarbose are add-on or alternative options, and insulin is used when other treatment fails or glucose is very high.

A 40-year-old man with a history of peptic ulcer has sudden severe epigastric pain and a rigid abdomen. Which plain radiograph is the most useful first test to show free intraperitoneal gas?

A) Erect chest X-ray
B) Supine abdominal X-ray
C) Lateral neck X-ray
D) Barium meal
E) Lateral spine X-ray

Correct answer: A) Erect chest X-ray

A perforated ulcer releases gas into the peritoneal cavity, which collects under the diaphragm and is best seen on an erect chest X-ray taken after the patient has been upright for a few minutes. CT is more sensitive if the X-ray is unclear. Barium is avoided when perforation is suspected.

Two papers in every subject: 100 MCQs per paper in ten disciplines, including Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Paediatrics and Family Medicine, and 10 short answer questions per paper in all other subjects.

Anaesthesiology, Dermatology, Diagnostic Radiology, Family Medicine, Obstetrics & Gynaecology, Ophthalmology, ENT, Paediatrics, Psychiatry and Pulmonology, according to the April 2027 MCPS notice.

A TOACS, viva voce or clinical exam, depending on the subject, held only in Pakistan.

Yes. Interface runs a live online MCPS course led by Dr Zahid Memon, with diagnostic and mock exams. Contact us for dates and fees.